Generic methods and method overloading - c#

Method overloading allows us to define many methods with the same name but with a different set of parameters ( thus with the same name but different signature ).
Are these two methods overloaded?
class A
{
public static void MyMethod<T>(T myVal) { }
public static void MyMethod(int myVal) { }
}
EDIT:
Shouldn't statement A<int>.MyMethod(myInt); throw an error, since constructed type A<int> has two methods with the same name and same signature?

Are the two methods overloaded?
Yes.
Shouldn't statement A<int>.MyMethod(myInt); throw an error, since constructed type A<int> has two methods with the same signature?
The question doesn't make sense; A is not a generic type as you have declared it. Perhaps you meant to ask:
Should the statement A.MyMethod(myInt); cause the compiler to report an error, since there are two ambiguous candidate methods?
No. As others have said, overload resolution prefers the non-generic version in this case. See below for more details.
Or perhaps you meant to ask:
Should the declaration of type A be illegal in the first place, since in some sense it has two methods with the same signature, MyMethod and MyMethod<int>?
No. The type A is perfectly legal. The generic arity is part of the signature. So there are not two methods with the same signature because the first has generic arity zero, the second has generic arity one.
Or perhaps you meant to ask:
class G<T>
{
public static void M(T t) {}
public static void M(int t) {}
}
Generic type G<T> can be constructed such that it has two methods with the same signature. Is it legal to declare such a type?
Yes, it is legal to declare such a type. It is usually a bad idea, but it is legal.
You might then retort:
But my copy of the C# 2.0 specification as published by Addison-Wesley states on page 479 "Two function members declared with the same names ... must have have parameter types such that no closed constructed type could have two members with the same name and signature." What's up with that?
When C# 2.0 was originally designed that was the plan. However, then the designers realized that this desirable pattern would be made illegal:
class C<T>
{
public C(T t) { ... } // Create a C<T> from a given T
public C(Stream s) { ... } // Deserialize a C<T> from disk
}
And now we say sorry buddy, because you could say C<Stream>, causing two constructors to unify, the whole class is illegal. That would be unfortunate. Obviously it is unlikely that anyone will ever construct this thing with Stream as the type parameter!
Unfortunately, the spec went to press before the text was updated to the final version. The rule on page 479 is not what we implemented.
Continuing to pose some more questions on your behalf:
So what happens if you call G<int>.M(123) or, in the original example, if you call A.MyMethod(123)?
When overload resolution is faced with two methods that have identical signatures due to generic construction then the one that is generic construction is considered to be "less specific" than the one that is "natural". A less specific method loses to a more specific method.
So why is it a bad idea, if overload resolution works?
The situation with A.MyMethod isn't too bad; it is usually pretty easy to unambiguously work out which method is intended. But the situation with G<int>.M(123) is far worse. The CLR rules make this sort of situation "implementation defined behaviour" and therefore any old thing can happen. Technically, the CLR could refuse to verify a program that constructs type G<int>. Or it could crash. In point of fact it does neither; it does the best it can with the bad situation.
Are there any examples of this sort of type construction causing truly implementation-defined behaviour?
Yes. See these articles for details:
https://ericlippert.com/2006/04/05/odious-ambiguous-overloads-part-one/
https://ericlippert.com/2006/04/06/odious-ambiguous-overloads-part-two/

Yes. MyMethod(int myVal) will be called when the type of the parameter is an int, the generic overload will be called for all other parameter arguments, even when the parameter argument is implicitly convertible to (or is a derived class of) the hardcoded type. Overload resolution will go for the best fit, and the generic overload will resolve to an exact match at compile time.
Note: You can explicitly invoke the generic overload and use an int by providing the type parameter in the method call, as Steven Sudit points out in his answer.
short s = 1;
int i = s;
MyMethod(s); // Generic
MyMethod(i); // int
MyMethod((int)s); // int
MyMethod(1); // int
MyMethod<int>(1); // Generic**
MyMethod(1.0); // Generic
// etc.

Yes, they are. They will allow code as such:
A.MyMethod("a string"); // calls the generic version
A.MyMethod(42); // calls the int version

Yes, they are overloaded. The compiler is supposed to prefer explicit method signatures against generic methods if they are available. Beware, however, that if you can avoid this kind of overload you probably should. There have been bug reports with respect to this sort of overload and unexpected behaviors.
https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/522202/c-3-0-generic-overload-call-resolution-from-within-generic-function

Yes. They have the same name "MyMethod" but different signatures. The C# specification, however, specifically handles this by saying that the compiler will prefer the non-generic version over the generic version, when both are options.

Yes. Off the top of my head, if you call A.MyMethod(1);, it will always run the second method. You'd have to call A.MyMethod<int>(1); to force it to run the first.

Related

C# specialization of generic extension methods

I have the following extension methods for my MessageBus:
public static class MessageBusMixins
{
public static IDisposable Subscribe<T>(
this IObservable<T> observable,
MessageBus bus)
where T:class
{
...
}
public static IDisposable Subscribe<T>(
this IObservable<Maybe<T>> observable,
MessageBus bus)
{
...
}
}
which compiles fine. However when I try to use it:
IObservable<Maybe<string>> source = ...;
MessageBus bus = ...;
source.Subscribe(bus);
I get the error that neither of the two candidate methods
are most specific. However I thought that Maybe<T> would
be more specific than T or is that not correct?
EDIT
It gets curiouser because if I call the extension method
explicitly then:
MessageBus.SubscribeTo(source, bus);
Then it works and picks the correct method.
Well, you can fix it by specifying the type argument:
source.Subscribe<string>(bus);
... as that's now only the second method is applicable.
Otherwise, the compiler could call either of:
source.Subscribe<string>(bus);
source.Subscribe<Maybe<string>>(bus);
If you think the first is more specific than the second, you'll have to find the rule in the C# specification which says so :) It's not an unreasonable expectation, but I don't think the normal "more specific" conversions apply to type parameters as well as regular parameters.
So for example, in section 7.5.3.2 of the C# 4 spec ("Better Function Member") there a rule about:
Otherwise if MP has more specific parameter types than MQ, then MP is better than MQ. [... lots of details about less/more specific ...]
... but there's no similar point about type parameters. (The second about normal parameters talks about type arguments, but that's within the parameter types themselves.)
Another alternative is to simply give the methods different names. Do they have subtly different behaviour? If so, why not make that really obvious via the naming? You really don't want someone to get the wrong behaviour just because they were surprised about which overload was called.

c#: Why isn't this ambiguous enum reference resolved using the method signature?

Consider the following code:
namespace ConsoleApplication
{
using NamespaceOne;
using NamespaceTwo;
class Program
{
static void Main(string[] args)
{
// Compilation error. MyEnum is an ambiguous reference
MethodNamespace.MethodClass.Frobble(MyEnum.foo);
}
}
}
namespace MethodNamespace
{
public static class MethodClass
{
public static void Frobble(NamespaceOne.MyEnum val)
{
System.Console.WriteLine("Frobbled a " + val.ToString());
}
}
}
namespace NamespaceOne
{
public enum MyEnum
{
foo, bar, bat, baz
}
}
namespace NamespaceTwo
{
public enum MyEnum
{
foo, bar, bat, baz
}
}
The compiler complains that MyEnum is an ambiguous reference in the call to Frobble(). Since there is no ambiguity in what method is being called, one might expect the compiler to resolve the type reference based on the method signature. Why doesn't it?
Please note that I'm not saying that the compiler should do this. I'm confident that there is a very good reason that it doesn't. I would simply like to know what that reason is.
Paul is correct. In most situation in C# we reason "from inside to outside".
there is no ambiguity in what method is being called,
That it is unambiguous to you is irrelevant to the compiler. The task of overload resolution is to determine whether the method group Frobble can be resolved to a specific method given known arguments. If we can't determine what the argument types are then we don't even try to do overload resolution.
Method groups that just happen to contain only one method are not special in this regard. We still have to have good arguments before overload resolution can succeed.
There are cases where we reason from "outside to inside", namely, when doing type analysis of lambdas. Doing so makes the overload resolution algorithm exceedingly complicated and gives the compiler a problem to solve that is at least NP-HARD in bad cases. But in most scenarios we want to avoid that complexity and expense; expressions are analyzed by analyzing child subexpressions before their parents, not the other way around.
More generally: C# is not a "when the program is ambiguous use heuristics to make guesses about what the programmer probably meant" language. It is a "inform the developer that their program is unclear and possibly broken" language. The portions of the language that are designed to try to resolve ambiguous situations -- like overload resolution or method type inference or implicitly typed arrays -- are carefully designed so that the algorithms have clear rules that take versioning and other real-world aspects into account. Bailing out as soon as one part of the program is ambiguous is one way we achieve this design goal.
If you prefer a more "forgiving" language that tries to figure out what you meant, VB or JScript might be better languages for you. They are more "do what I meant not what I said" languages.
I believe its because the C# compiler won't typically backtrack.
NamespaceOne and NamespaceTwo are defined in the same code file. That would be equivalent to putting them in different code files and referencing them via using statement.
In that case you can see why the names clash. You have equally named enum in two different namesapces and the compiler can't guess which one it is, even though Frobble has a NamespaceOne.MyEnum parameter. Instead of
MethodNamespace.MethodClass.Frobble(MyEnum.foo)
use
MethodNamespace.MethodClass.Frobble(NamespaceOne.MyEnum.foo)

Delegate as first param to an Extension Method

Ladies and Gents,
I recently tried this experiment:
static class TryParseExtensions
{
public delegate bool TryParseMethod<T>(string s, out T maybeValue);
public static T? OrNull<T>(this TryParseMethod<T> tryParser, string s) where T:struct
{
T result;
return tryParser(s, out result) ? (T?)result : null;
}
}
// compiler error "'int.TryParse(string, out int)' is a 'method', which is not valid in the given context"
var result = int.TryParse.OrNull("1"); // int.TryParse.OrNull<int>("1"); doesnt work either
// compiler error: type cannot be infered....why?
var result2 = TryParseExtensions.OrNull(int.TryParse, "2");
// works as expected
var result3 = TryParseExtensions.OrNull<int>(int.TryParse, "3");
var result4 = ((TryParseExtensions.TryParseMethod<int>)int.TryParse).OrNull("4");
I am wondering two things:
Why can the compiler not infer the "int" type parameter?
Do I understand correctly that extensions methods do not get discovered on Delegate types, as I guess they arent really of that type (but are a "Method") that only happen to match the delegates signature? As such a cast solves this. Would it be infeasable to enable scenario 1 to work (not this one specifically of course, but in general)? I guess from a language/compiler perspective and would it actually be useful, or am I just (attempting to) wildly abusing things here?
Looking forward to some insights. Thnx
You have a number of questions here. (In the future I would recommend that when you have multiple questions, split them up into multiple questions rather than one posting with several questions in it; you'll probably get better responses.)
Why can the compiler not infer the "int" type parameter in:
TryParseExtensions.OrNull(int.TryParse, "2");
Good question. Rather than answer that here, I refer you to my 2007 article which explains why this did not work in C# 3.0:
http://blogs.msdn.com/b/ericlippert/archive/2007/11/05/c-3-0-return-type-inference-does-not-work-on-member-groups.aspx
Summing up: fundamentally there is a chicken-and-egg problem here. We must do overload resolution on int.TryParse to determine which overload of TryParse is the intended one (or, if none of them work, what the error is.) Overload resolution always tries to infer from arguments. In this case though, it is precisely the type of the argument that we are attempting to infer.
We could come up with a new overload resolution algorithm that says "well, if there's only one method in the method group then pick that one even if we don't know what the arguments are", but that seems weak. It seems like a bad idea to special-case method groups that have only one method in them because that then penalizes you for adding new overloads; it can suddenly be a breaking change.
As you can see from the comments to that article, we got a lot of good feedback on it. The best feedback was got was basically "well, suppose type inference has already worked out the types of all the argument and it is the return type that we are attempting to infer; in that case you could do overload resolution". That analysis is correct, and changes to that effect went into C# 4. I talked about that a bit more here:
http://blogs.msdn.com/b/ericlippert/archive/2008/05/28/method-type-inference-changes-part-zero.aspx
Do I understand correctly that extensions methods do not get discovered on delegate types, as I guess they arent really of that type (but are a "Method") that only happen to match the delegates signature?
Your terminology is a bit off, but your idea is correct. We do not discover extension methods when the "receiver" is a method group. More generally, we do not discover extension methods when the receiver is something that lacks its own type, but rather takes on a type based on its context: method groups, lambdas, anonymous methods and the null literal all have this property. It would be really bizarre to say null.Whatever() and have that call an extension method on String, or even weirder, (x=>x+1).Whatever() and have that call an extension method on Func<int, int>.
The line of the spec which describes this behaviour is :
An implicit identity, reference or boxing conversion [must exist] from [the receiver expression] to the type of the first parameter [...].
Conversions on method groups are not identity, reference or boxing conversions; they are method group conversions.
Would it be infeasable to enable scenario 1 to work (not this one specifically of course, but in general)? I guess from a language/compiler perspective and would it actually be useful, or am I just (attempting to) wildly abusing things here?
It is not infeasible. We've got a pretty smart team here and there's no theoretical reason why it is impossible to do so. It just doesn't seem to us like a feature that adds more value to the language than the cost of the additional complexity.
There are times when it would be useful. For example, I'd like to be able to do this; suppose I have a static Func<A, R> Memoize<A, R>(this Func<A, R> f) {...}:
var fib = (n=>n<2?1:fib(n-1)+fib(n-2)).Memoize();
Instead of what you have to write today, which is:
Func<int, int> fib = null;
fib = n=>n<2?1:fib(n-1)+fib(n-2);
fib = fib.Memoize();
But frankly, the additional complexity the proposed feature adds to the language is not paid for by the small benefit in making the code above less verbose.
The reason for the first error:
int.TryParse is a method group, not an object instance of any type. Extension methods can only be called on object instances. That's the same reason why the following code is invalid:
var s = int.TryParse;
This is also the reason why the type can't be inferred in the second example: int.TryParse is a method group and not of type TryParseMethod<int>.
I suggest, you use approach three and shorten the name of that extension class. I don't think there is any better way to do it.
Note that your code works if you first declare :
TryParseExtensions.TryParseMethod<int> tryParser = int.TryParse;
and then use tryParser where you used int.TryParse.
The problem is that the compiler doesn't know which overload of int.Parse you're speaking about. So it cannot completely infer it : are you speaking about TryParse(String, Int32) or TryParse(String, NumberStyles, IFormatProvider, Int32) ? The compiler can't guess and won't arbitrarily decide for you (fortunately !).
But your delegate type makes clear which overload you're interested in. That's why assigning tryParser is not a problem. You're not speaking anymore of a "method group" but of a well identified method signature inside this group of methods called int.TryParse.

Overloads Done At Compile Time

I was just reading this answer
Which overload is called and how?
by Jon Skeet and I just done understand how overload resolution gets done at compile time - How is that possible?? You dont know the type of the object till you run??
I always thought that all method calls were done at run time (late binding)
What are the exceptions to that??
I ll give an example:
public void DoWork(IFoo)
public void DoWork(Bar)
IFoo a = new Bar();
DoWork(a)
Which method gets called here and why?
When a method call is encountered by the compiler the types of all the parameters are known because C# is a statically-typed language: all expressions and variables are of a particular type and that type is definite and known at compile time.
This is ignoring dynamic which slightly complicates things.
Edit: This is a response to your edit. For clarity, I translated your code into the following:
interface IFoo { }
class Bar : IFoo { }
class Test {
public void DoWork(IFoo a) { }
public void DoWork(Bar b) { }
}
class Program {
static void Main(string[] args) {
IFoo a = new Bar();
Test t = new Test();
t.DoWork(a);
}
}
You are asking which method is called here (Test.DoWork(IFoo) or Test.DoWork(Bar)) when invoked as t.DoWork(a) in Main. The answer is that Test.DoWork(IFoo) is called. This is basically because the the parameter is typed as an IFoo. Let's go the specification (§7.4.3.1):
A function member is said to be an applicable function member with respect to an argument list A when all of the following are true:
The number of arguments in A is identical to the number of parameters in the function member declaration.
For each argument in A, the parameter passing mode of the argument (i.e., value, ref, or out) is identical to the parameter passing mode of the corresponding parameter, and
for a value parameter or a parameter array, an implicit conversion (§6.1) exists from the argument to the type of the corresponding parameter, or
for a ref or out parameter, the type of the argument is identical to the type of the corresponding parameter. After all, a ref or out parameter is an alias for the argument passed.
The issue here (see the bolded statement) is that there is no implicit conversion from IFoo to Bar. Therefore, the method Test.DoWork(Bar) is not an applicable function member. Clearly Test.DoWork(IFoo) is an applicable function member and, as the only choice, will be chosen by the compiler as the method to invoke.
I think you are confusing overload resolution with virtual method dispatch. Yes, the runtime type of the object will determine which method to run but the method has already been bound by the compiler. This is a type-safe way of allowing polymorphic behavior without all the flexibility and danger of true late-binding.
The compiler will determine which method overload in to call based on the types of the arguments as written in your code.
Virtual methods (including calls through an interface) are dispatched on the type of the receiver at runtime (late binding).
Nonvirtual methods are resolved at compile time, using the compile-time type of the reference. This is why shadowing (the new modifier) results in different behaviour depending on whether you call the shadowed method through a base class reference or a derived class reference.
In all cases, overload resolution uses the compile-time types of the arguments. Only the receiver -- that is, the x in a call of the form x.SomeMethod(y, z) -- is considered for late binding. Thus, if y is typed as object, and the only overloads are string y and int y, the compiler will error, even if at runtime y would actually be a string or int -- because it's only considering the compile-time type (the declared type of the variable).
The only thing decided at runtime is "virtual" functions, you call the appropriate function for your object.

Calling constructor overload when both overload have same signature

Consider the following class,
class Foo
{
public Foo(int count)
{
/* .. */
}
public Foo(int count)
{
/* .. */
}
}
Above code is invalid and won't compile. Now consider the following code,
class Foo<T>
{
public Foo(int count)
{
/* .. */
}
public Foo(T t)
{
/* .. */
}
}
static void Main(string[] args)
{
Foo<int> foo = new Foo<int>(1);
}
Above code is valid and compiles well. It calls Foo(int count).
My question is, if the first one is invalid, how can the second one be valid? I know class Foo<T> is valid because T and int are different types. But when it is used like Foo<int> foo = new Foo<int>(1), T is getting integer type and both constructor will have same signature right? Why don't compiler show error rather than choosing an overload to execute?
There is no ambiguity, because the compiler will choose the most specific overload of Foo(...) that matches. Since a method with a generic type parameter is considered less specific than a corresponding non-generic method, Foo(T) is therefore less specific than Foo(int) when T == int. Accordingly, you are invoking the Foo(int) overload.
Your first case (with two Foo(int) definitions) is an error because the compiler will allow only one definition of a method with precisely the same signature, and you have two.
Your question was hotly debated when C# 2.0 and the generic type system in the CLR were being designed. So hotly, in fact, that the "bound" C# 2.0 specification published by A-W actually has the wrong rule in it! There are four possibilities:
1) Make it illegal to declare a generic class that could POSSIBLY be ambiguous under SOME construction. (This is what the bound spec incorrectly says is the rule.) So your Foo<T> declaration would be illegal.
2) Make it illegal to construct a generic class in a manner which creates an ambiguity. declaring Foo<T> would be legal, constructing Foo<double> would be legal, but constructing Foo<int> would be illegal.
3) Make it all legal and use overload resolution tricks to work out whether the generic or nongeneric version is better. (This is what C# actually does.)
4) Do something else I haven't thought of.
Rule #1 is a bad idea because it makes some very common and harmless scenarios impossible. Consider for example:
class C<T>
{
public C(T t) { ... } // construct a C that wraps a T
public C(Stream state) { ... } // construct a C based on some serialized state from disk
}
You want that to be illegal just because C<Stream> is ambiguous? Yuck. Rule #1 is a bad idea, so we scrapped it.
Unfortunately, it is not as simple as that. IIRC the CLI rules say that an implementation is allowed to reject as illegal constructions that actually do cause signature ambiguities. That is, the CLI rules are something like Rule #2, whereas C# actually implements Rule #3. Which means that there could in theory be legal C# programs that translate into illegal code, which is deeply unfortunate.
For some more thoughts on how these sorts of ambiguities make our lives wretched, here are a couple of articles I wrote on the subject:
http://blogs.msdn.com/ericlippert/archive/2006/04/05/569085.aspx
http://blogs.msdn.com/ericlippert/archive/2006/04/06/odious-ambiguous-overloads-part-two.aspx
Eric Lippert blogged about this recently.
The fact is that they do not both have the same signature - one is using generics while this other is not.
With those methods in place you could also call it using a non-int object:
Foo<string> foo = new Foo<string>("Hello World");

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