Is there anything wrong with using an implicit operator like the following:
//linqpad c# program example
void Main()
{
var testObject = new MyClass<int>() { Value = 1 };
var add = 10 + testObject; //implicit conversion to int here
add.Dump(); // 11
}
class MyClass<T>
{
public T Value { get; set; }
public static implicit operator T (MyClass<T> myClassToConvert)
{
return myClassToConvert.Value;
}
}
I was thinking I could treat as instance of the object as a value type this way, but seeing as I've never seen an example of this I thought maybe there was a reason not to do something like this that someone could point out?
In my actual code I was thinking of doing this as part of a data abstraction layer, so that I could return objects with information describing the underlying data, but allow the logic code to treat it as a value type when all it needs to know about is the value, and at the same time keep it all nice and type safe with the generics.
If all of the following are true:
all possible values of your MyClass<T> type (including null if it’s not a value type!) map to a valid value of T
the implicit operator never throws (not even for null!)
the implicit conversion makes semantic sense and is not confusing to the client programmer
then there is nothing wrong with this. Of course you could do any of these three things, but it would be bad design. In particular, an implicit operator that throws can be very hard to debug because the place where it is called doesn’t say that it is being called.
For example, consider that T? has no implicit conversion to T (where T is, of course, a value type). If there was such an implicit operator, it would have to throw when the T? is null, as there is no obvious value to convert null to that would make sense for any value type T.
Let me give an example where I had trouble debugging an issue where the implicit operator threw:
public string Foo()
{
return some_condition ? GetSomething() : null;
}
Here, GetSomething returned something of a type I wrote which has a user-defined implicit conversion to string. I made absolutely sure that GetSomething could never return null, and yet I got a NullReferenceException! Why? Because the above code is not equivalent to
return some_condition ? (string)GetSomething() : (string)null;
but to
return (string)(some_condition ? GetSomething() : (Something)null);
Now you can see where the null came from!
That's a great pattern. Just keep in mind that in order to use it as a variable of type T, you have to either explicitly cast it to T, or assign it to a variable of type T. The cast will take place automatically in method calls and other things (such as your addition example) that take a T.
Implicit conversion without assignment?
Related
Please have a look at the following code. Why do I get a compile-error?
I don't get it!
Casting is a way of telling the compiler that I know more about the objects than it does. And in this case, I know for fact, that "x" does actually contain an instance of "SomeClass". But the compiler seems to be unwilling to accept that information.
https://dotnetfiddle.net/0DlmXf
public class StrangeConversion
{
public class SomeClass { }
public interface ISomeInterface { }
public class Implementation : SomeClass, ISomeInterface { }
public void Foo<T>() where T : class
{
T x = (T)Factory();
//Compile-error: Cannot convert type 'T' to 'SomeClass'
SomeClass a = (SomeClass)x;
//This is perfectly fine:
SomeClass b = (SomeClass)(object)x;
if (x is SomeClass c)
{
//This works as well and 'c' contains the reference.
}
}
private object Factory()
{
return new Implementation();
}
}
Edit:
#Charles Mager has the correct answer in the comment: There does not seem to be a valid reason. The language designers just didn't want to allow this cast.
I fixed using the as casting e.g.
SomeClass a = x as SomeClass;
This Answer explains is very well https://stackoverflow.com/a/132467/16690008
Essentially it's because it would throw an exception if T is not type of that class
It's hard to make sense of exactly what you're trying to achieve, but it seems like a generic constraint is what you're after
public void Foo<T>()
where T : SomeClass // constrain T to be inheriting from SomeClass
{
T x = Factory<T>(); // x is guaranted to be SomeClass
}
private T Factory<T>()
where T : SomeClass // same here
{
return new Implementation();
}
You constrain the generic to only reference types by specifying where T : class, but the compiler needs to know with certainty if the cast is possible. This means you are asking the compiler to trust that SomeClass can be cast from any reference type you pass to it, which is something it won't do. The microsoft docs state that for the class generic type constraint:
The type argument must be a reference type. This constraint applies also to any class, interface, delegate, or array type.
Its important to note that SomeClass b = (SomeClass)(object)x; works because of the cast to object which is the root of the object hierarchy. But as you can see from the list of supported reference types, SomeClass a = (SomeClass)x; has to account for things such as delegates, array types, etc., at which point the compiler will throw you the error
Don't do SomeClass b = (SomeClass)(object)x;, it is much cleaner to make proper use of type constraints along with the as & is operators which were designed for this exact purpose of type checking and safe casting
Short answer:
This behaviour is correct according to the spec. The spec is just bad here since this might convert a compile-error into a runtime-error.
Long answer:
I did some more research on the matter. This is an oversight in the language's spec.
C# uses the same syntax for two totally different things:
int i = (int)1.9
This converts the double 1.9 to an integer. The value is actually changed.
object o = "abc";
string s = (string) o;
This looks the same, but does not change the object referenced by "o" at all. It does only convert the type of the reference.
When it comes to generics, this kind of ambiguity is an issue:
function f(T x) {
var x = (string) x;
}
What should the language do if T is "int"?
That's why the spec forces the developer to cast to object first:
function f(T x) {
var x = (string)(object)x;
}
Now, the behaviour is clear: X might still be a value-type. But if it is, it will be converted to a reference-type first.
This ambiguity does not exist in my example, since T is guaranteed to be a reference type:
public void Foo<T>() where T : class
Thus the cast to object is not necessary. It could even be harmful if the "where" specifies an actual type. In that case, the forced cast to object might convert a compile-time-error (impossible cast) to a runtime-error.
Unfortunately, the people who created the spec, did not see this issue and did not include it.
So, int is implicitly convertible to decimal. This causes an issue when wanting an Expression of a decimal property, where an Expression of an int property with an implicit cast is passed instead. Due to the implicit cast, no compiler error is given.
Eg:
class Thing {
public int IntProperty { get; set; }
}
void DoSomething(
Expression<Func<Thing, decimal>> pDecimalExpression
) {
...
}
DoSomething(t => t.IntProperty); // compiles; IntProperty is implicitly cast to decimal
Is there a way at compile time that I can ensure I'm really getting a decimal property? I would like a compiler error if I pass an expression with an implicit cast in it like this.
(Since I'm using reflection, I end up with a runtime error saying that the property I'm using can't be given a decimal value. I feel like the best I could do is detect the type mismatch myself at runtime and throw an only slightly better error instead.)
I would use generic constraint. As struct type cannot be used directly, you can still use IEquatable<T> to limit what can be passed as T(built-in types implements this interface). Downside is that anything implementing IEquatable<decimal> will be allowed as T generic parameter(which may or not be issue in your case).
void DoSomething<T>(Expression<Func<Thing, T>> pDecimalExpression)
where T : struct, IEquatable<decimal> {
...
}
Second option is to write custom Roslyn Analyzer to validate code during compile-time.
Hope it helps.
There's a trick you can use. The compiler will prefer an overload with int, so provide it one and use the ObsoleteAttribute's ability to emit a compile-time error.
Declare DoSomething like this:
void DoSomething(Expression<Func<Thing, decimal>> pDecimalExpression)
{
// …
}
[Obsolete("No, no, no!", true)] // the true here causes an error instead of a warning
void DoSomething(Expression<Func<Thing, int>> pIntExpression)
{
// just in case someone would call this method via reflection
throw new NotSupportedException();
}
and the following call causes a compile-time error:
DoSomething(t => t.IntProperty);
int? num = null;
How does it work under the hood? I always assumed Nullable is a class and today I was debugging and was surprised to see it's a struct. I checked the source code and found this implicit operator:
[System.Runtime.Versioning.NonVersionable]
public static implicit operator Nullable<T>(T value)
{
return new Nullable<T>(value);
}
It's obviously not the answer here since null is not an int. In addition the constructor is this:
[System.Runtime.Versioning.NonVersionable]
public Nullable(T value)
{
this.value = value;
this.hasValue = true;
}
So the constructor is not called either.
Is compiler using some synthetic sugar here?
type? t = null;
is recognized by the compiler and replaced with type? t = new type?(), which invokes the default constructor which in turn sets the object to all zeros. The property HasValue is backed by a boolean variable such that false is the correct initial value in this case.
In just about every place, these constructions are treated as though they were references to a an object of type type. In order to observe they aren't you would need a mutable struct. The compiler knows about type? in quite a few ways including checking the HasValue property when boxing and boxing to a null or a boxed type. If you manage to get a boxed type? the unboxer should be able to handle it, but there doesn't seem to be a way to get a boxed type? anymore unless you're writing extern functions.
I'm trying to do some unit testing on a project that unfortunately has high level of unit interdependence. Currently, a lot of our classes look to a custom UserIdentity object to determine authentication, but that object has a lot of internal hoop-jumping that I would just as soon avoid when trying to test individual unit functionality.
To work around some of this, I'm trying to create a "mock" version of this UserIdentity that can be plugged in with a more tightly-controlled variable environment.
Long story short, we have a UserIdentity class with several public read-only properties and a static CurrentIdentity (IIdentity) placeholder. I'm able work around just about everything with a "mock" IIdentity implementation, but I'm running into a wall when I reach a point where the CurrentIdentity is cast as a UserIdentity.
It's a pretty straight-forward method:
internal static UserIdentity GetCurrentIdentity()
{
UserIdentity currentIdentity = ApplicationContext.User.Identity as UserIdentity;
return currentIdentity;
}
I've set up my mock object to create a member of the UserIdentity type, and then do something like this:
public static implicit operator UserIdentity(MockUserIdentity src)
{
return src.UserIdentity;
}
or this
public static explicit operator UserIdentity(MockUserIdentity src)
{
return src.UserIdentity;
}
The problem is that as far as I can tell, that 'as' doesn't seem to invoke either an implicit or explicit conversion operation on my mock object. My question(s) is(are?), am I missing something simple here or will this not work because (I'm guessing) the 'as' operation looks directly to class inheritance (which my object does not do...)?
Also, a bit off topic maybe, but why can there not be simultaneous explicit and implicit operators of the same resultant type within a class? Unless I'm missing something silly, the compiler balks if I try to have both conversion operators at once. I have to pick one or the other.
UPDATE
Okay, now I'm thoroughly confused. Maybe I'm getting sloppy, but I've tried doing the direct cast, and I can't seem to get that to work either. I read up on the operator at MSDN, and the example shows the operator going in the resultant class rather than the source class, but I'm not sure if that matters or not (I tried both places in the code below). Either way, I tried to set up a simple test bed to see what I might be doing wrong, but I can't get that to work either...Here's what I've got
class Program
{
// Shared Interface
public interface IIdentity { }
// "real" class (not conducive to inheritence)
public class CoreIdentity : IIdentity
{
internal CoreIdentity() { }
// Just in case (if this has to be here, that seems unfortunate)
public static explicit operator CoreIdentity(ExtendedIdentity src)
{
return src.Identity;
}
}
// "mock" class (Wraps core object)
public class ExtendedIdentity : IIdentity
{
public CoreIdentity Identity { get; set; }
public ExtendedIdentity()
{
Identity = new CoreIdentity();
}
// This is where the operator seems like it should belong...
public static explicit operator CoreIdentity(ExtendedIdentity src)
{
return src.Identity;
}
}
// Dummy class to obtain "current core identity"
public class Foo
{
public IIdentity Identity { get; set; }
public CoreIdentity GetCoreIdentity()
{
return (CoreIdentity)Identity;
}
}
static void Main(string[] args)
{
ExtendedIdentity identity = new ExtendedIdentity();
Foo foo = new Foo();
foo.Identity = identity;
CoreIdentity core = foo.GetCoreIdentity();
}
}
But that throws the following exception when I invoke foo.GetCoreIdentity():
Unable to cast object of type 'ExtendedIdentity' to type 'CoreIdentity'.
and I can't catch either of my explicit operators with a break point, so it looks like it's making this determination without even "trying" the conversion routes I've provided.
Surely I'm missing something obvious. Does the fact that I have my Identity (in Foo) defined as IIdentity somehow prevent resolution of the cast using the explicit operators of the implementing type? That would strike me as odd.
UPDATE (#2)
I feel like I'm spamming my post with all these updates (maybe I should get my act together before being so trigger-happy :) ) Anyway, I modified my Foo's GetCoreIdentityMethod to do this instead:
public CoreIdentity GetCoreIdentity()
{
ExtendedIdentity exId = Identity as ExtendedIdentity;
if (exId != null)
return (CoreIdentity)exId;
return (CoreIdentity)Identity;
}
and (after having to clean up the ambiguous reference caused by having the operator in both classes), it did step into my explicit conversion operator code, and it did work as expected. So I guess it looks like the explicit operators are not resolved polymorphically (is that the correct understanding?), and the fact that my property was typed as an IIdentity rather than an ExtendedIdentity prevented it from invoking the cast logic even though it was of the ExtendedIdentity type at the time it was invoked. That strikes me as very peculiar and unexpected....and kind of unfortunate.
I don't want to have to re-write the keeper of the CurrentIdentity object to make it aware of my special test cast mocks. I wanted to encapsulate that "special" logic into the mock itself, so this really throws me for a loop.
Does the fact that I have my Identity
(in Foo) defined as IIdentity somehow
prevent resolution of the cast using
the explicit operators of the
implementing type?
Here's a hint: how do you define an explicit (or implicit, for that matter) conversion operator? (I know you know this since you already did it; I am asking the question to illustrate a point.)
public static explicit operator UserIdentity(MockUserIdentity src)
{
return src.UserIdentity;
}
There's something very important to realize here. The C# designers made the wise choice of making all operators static. So the explicit operator defined above translates to essentially a static method call looking something like this:
public static UserIdentity op_Explicit(MockUserIdentity src)
{
return src.UserIdentity;
}
Now, here is what I'm getting at. The behavior that perplexed you in your question because it seemed to fail in the polymorphism department was really the result of C#'s system of method overload resolution.
If I have two methods:
void Write(string s) { Console.WriteLine("string"); }
void Write(object o) { Console.WriteLine("object"); }
...and then I have this program:
object x = "Hello!";
Write(x);
What will the output be?
The answer is "object" because the Write(object) overload was selected by the compiler -- as well it should have been. Write is not an instance method to be overridden by some derived type according to normal polymorphism; it is a static method, with overloads between which the compiler must make a choice. Since x in the above code is declared to be of type object, that choice is unambiguously Write(object).
So in the case of your code, where you have this:
public IIdentity Identity { get; set; }
public CoreIdentity GetCoreIdentity()
{
return (CoreIdentity)Identity;
}
The compiler must investigate: is there an op_Explicit overload which accepts an IIdentity parameter? No, there is not. There's one that accepts a UserIdentity parameter, but that's too specific (just as Write(string) was too specific for x in the example above).
So the reason your explicit operator was not called in your initial tests was that the compiler will not resolve (CoreIdentity)Identity to that particular overload. This is also why your modified version does work:
public CoreIdentity GetCoreIdentity()
{
ExtendedIdentity exId = Identity as ExtendedIdentity;
if (exId != null)
{
// Since exId is actually declared to be of type ExtendedIdentity,
// the compiler can choose the operator overload accepting
// an ExtendedIdentity parameter -- so this will work.
return (CoreIdentity)exId;
}
return (CoreIdentity)Identity;
}
as does not invoke conversion operators. See: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cscsdfbt(v=VS.100).aspx
Use a (cast).
So, why don't you use an explicit cast?
// will throw if cast fails
internal static UserIdentity GetCurrentIdentity()
{
UserIdentity currentIdentity = (UserIdentity) ApplicationContext.User.Identity ;
return currentIdentity;
}
This ought to trigger your explicit operator. You can test with is first to make it safer.
As mentioned by Ray as doesn't invoke the conversion operators.
That said, you should be using an explicit cast in that type of scenarios.
That way, You get very clear information when something isn't set up right and the object at ApplicationContext.User.Identity wasn't what the code expected it to.
I want to make a method:
object Execute()
{
return type.InvokeMember(..);
}
to accept a generic parameter:
T Execute<T>()
{
return Execute() as T;
/* doesn't work:
The type parameter 'T' cannot be used with the 'as' operator because
it does not have a class type constraint nor a 'class' constraint */
// also neither typeof(T), nor T.GetType() are possible
return (T) Execute(); // ok
}
But I think operator as will be very useful: if result type isn't T method will return null, instead of an exception! Is it possible to do?
You need to add
where T : class
to your method declaration, e.g.
T Execute<T>() where T : class
{
By the way, as a suggestion, that generic wrapper doesn't really add much value. The caller can write:
MyClass c = whatever.Execute() as MyClass;
Or if they want to throw on fail:
MyClass c = (MyClass)whatever.Execute();
The generic wrapper method looks like this:
MyClass c = whatever.Execute<MyClass>();
All three versions have to specify exactly the same three entities, just in different orders, so none are any simpler or any more convenient, and yet the generic version hides what is happening, whereas the "raw" versions each make it clear whether there will be a throw or a null.
(This may be irrelevant to you if your example is simplified from your actual code).
You cannot use the as operator with a generic type with no restriction. Since the as operator uses null to represent that it was not of the type, you cannot use it on value types. If you want to use obj as T, T will have to be a reference type.
T Execute<T>() where T : class
{
return Execute() as T;
}
This small piece of code is an exception safe substitution for the as-keyword:
return Execute() is T value ? value : default(T)
It uses the pattern matching feature introduced with C# 7.
Use it, if you don't want to restrict the generic parameter to a reference type
It seems like you are just adding a wrapper method for casting to the type the user wants, thus only adding overhead to the execution. For the user, writing
int result = Execute<int>();
isn't much different from
int result = (int)Execute();
You can use the out modifier to write the result into a variable in the caller's scope, and return a boolean flag to tell whether it succeeded:
bool Execute<T>(out T result) where T : class
{
result = Execute() as T;
return result != null;
}
Is there a chance that Execute() might return a value type? If so, then you need Earwicker's method for class types, and another generic method for value types. Might look like this:
Nullable<T> ExecuteForValueType<T> where T : struct
The logic inside that method would say
object rawResult = Execute();
Then, you'd have to get the type of rawResult and see if it can be assigned to T:
Nullable<T> finalReturnValue = null;
Type theType = rawResult.GetType();
Type tType = typeof(T);
if(tType.IsAssignableFrom(theType))
{
finalReturnValue = tType;
}
return finalReturnValue;
Finally, make your original Execute message figure out which T is has (class or struct type), and call the appropriate implementation.
Note: This is from rough memory. I did this about a year ago and probably don't remember every detail. Still, I hope pointing you in the general direction helps.